CERTIFICATION EXAM 000-010            Test information:
Number of questions: 40
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 65%
Test languages: English
Job Role Description / Target Audience

An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Tivoli Service Management Solution 2008 is a person who identifies opportunities and influences direction for IBM service management solutions within the customer environment and is responsible for educating and influencing key decision makers.

Key areas of competency include:
Map customer business requirements to IBM Service Management solutions.
Apply governing service management concepts and standards to a customer-s infrastructure.
Assess ITIL and Preventative Maintenance process maturity.
Assess the environment for asset and service management opportunities.
Align IBM and 3rd party products to service management opportunities.
Assess requirements and create a solution design.
Describe business/technical advantages of IBM Service Management solutions.
Recommend education opportunities to customer based on the IBM Service Management solution.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Working knowledge of IT Asset and Enterprise Asset Management
Capability to assess and analyze service management maturity according to IBM terminology (based on an IBM service management solution).
Working knowledge of IT process model (i.e. Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)).
Familiarity with IT organization structures.
Familiarity with key Enterprise Asset Management competitors.
Familiarity with key IT Asset Service Management competitors.
Familiarity with production, facility and fleet asset life cycle management.
Familiarity with IT directory/LDAP functionality.
Conceptual knowledge of key IBM products (WebSphere Application Server, DB2, Rational).
Familiarity with key 3rd party products (Centennial, ESRI, Syclo, WebLogic, Oracle, Microsoft SQL).
Familiarity with IBM Service Management education offerings.
Conceptual knowledge of networking environments, operating systems, relational databases, application environments, key vendor environments (SAP, Oracle, PeopleSoft, etc.).
Create a business case justification for an service management project.
Working knowledge of Tivoli Base Services (formerly Maximo Base Services).
Working knowledge of these Tivoli products: IBM Maximo Asset Management, IBM Tivoli Asset Management for IT, IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager, IBM Tivoli Change and Compliance Management Database, IBM Tivoli Unified Process Composer, IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager, Tivoli Process Managers, Maximo Discovery
Conceptual understanding of these key Tivoli Operational Management Products: IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager, IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator, IBM Tivoli License Compliance Manager, IBM Tivoli Monitoring, IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manger, IBM Netcool/OMNIbus, IBM Netcool/Impact, IBM Tivoli Business Systems Manager, IBM Tivoli Service Level Advisor, IBM Tivoli TotalStorage Productivity Center, IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Conceptual understanding of key Enterprise Modules within Maximo: Inventory, Contracts, Procurement, Calibration, etc.

Recommended Prerequisite(s)

Familiarity with IT hardware components.
Familiarity with return on investment (ROI) calculations.
Familiarity with IT process analysis methods and techniques.
Familiarity with international (government and civil) regulations (Sarbanes-Oxley, HIPAA, ISO 9000, Australian Privacy Act, etc.).
ITIL Foundation Level certification.
Familiarity with domains in at least one industry sector.

16. How is the MSA1xxx storage system family positioned?
A. as a DAS solution with limited SAN capabilities
B. as a SAN solution with direct connect capabilities
C. as an entry level storage solution with controller based data replication capability
D. as a preconfigured solution with expansion capability to a mission critical enterprise solution
Answer: B
17. The Secure Path Agent communicates with which driver on a Windows 2000/2003 system?
A. RAIDISK.SYS
B. HSZDISK.SYS
C. HSXDISK.SYS
D. LP6NDS35.SYS
Answer: A
18. What information can be collected from an Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU) report? (Select three.)
A. problems that appear to be drive related
B. host bus adapter (HBA) errors
C. immediate hard read/write errors
D. Fibre Channel timeout errors
E. approaching prefailure and failure conditions
Answer: ACE
19. You are attaching MSA30 enclosures to an MSA1500 cs with all SCSI modules installed. On which bus and
port should they be attached?
A. bus 0 port A, bus 1 port A, bus 2 port A and bus 3 port A
B. bus 0 port A, bus 1 port B, bus 2 port A and bus 3 port B
C. bus 0 port B, bus 1 port A, bus 2 port B and bus 3 port A
D. bus 0 port B, bus 1 port B, bus 2 port B and bus 3 port B
Answer: A
20. Which Windows OS multipathing software is supported on an MSA1510i storage system?
A. QLogic failover driver
B. Secure Path for iSCSI
C. iSCSI protocol embedded function
D. Multipath Input/Output (MPIO)
Answer: D

11. What is the path status of a path that is currently servicing or is capable of servicing I/O to a storageset?
A. active
B. alternate
C. available
D. preferred
Answer: A
12. What is the default username and password to access the Storage Management Utility (SMU) for the first
time?
A. root; root
B. admin; admin
C. root; password
D. admin; -no password-
Answer: A

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13. Which utilities are used to monitor and manage the MSA1000-supported Brocade switches? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. Web-Based Tools
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. ACU
E. Telnet
Answer: BE
14. According to best practices, what is the recommended status of the target before you modify ACLs? (Select
two.)
A. active
B. inactive
C. standby
D. pending
E. disconnected
Answer: BE
15. What happens if access control is disabled on an MSA1510i?
A. Only initiators without ACLs have access to any target.
B. Only initiators with an ACL have access to their targets.
C. All initiators with access to the controller can access the targets.
D. None of the initiators with access to the controller can access the targets.
Answer: C

66. Francois is familiar with the generation of WSDL in a data provider model using the Service Definition builder.
However, for his current project, he has created several service consumer models and is performing complex operations
on the result sets. It is these operations, not necessarily the raw data, which he would like to expose as web services.
How can he define a new WSDL without involving the provider model?
A. Use the WSDL Generator builder at the end of any model
B. Append Action!ViewWSDL to the URL of any model as it runs
C. Use the Web Service Enable builder to expose one or more methods
D. Use a Web Service builder as a modifier after using a View & Form builder
Answer: C
67. Bill is developing a user interface for a result set of data using View & Form. He wishes to present the user with 20
rows of results at a time. What does he need to enable?
A. Paged Data Display
B. Navigation controls
C. A More button control
D. Back and Next button controls
Answer: A                                 pass4side

68. Allison has accessed a data source, and added builders that make several SQL calls to the data source. She has also
added service operation calls to transform data. Now to make the result sets available to a service consumer, what builder
call must she add?
A. SQL Publisher
B. Service Publisher
C. Service Definition
D. Service Externalization
Answer: C

69. Tariq is building a complex page using the Imported Page builder and needs to locate several control builder calls on
that page to perform more actions. What are the three techniques for locating the control builder calls?
A. Inside Top, Inside Bottom, and Wrapper
B. On Named Tag, On Span Tag, and Relative
C. On Named Tag, Relative to Named Tag, and Advanced
D. On Span Tag, Relative to Span Tag, and Profiled Location Input
Answer: C

70. Otto needs to pass several arguments from one portlet to another when firing an event. Which of the following Event
types can he use?
A. Factory Portlet Event
B. WPS Default Portlet Message
C. Factory Multimodal Portlet Message
D. WPS Default Portlet Message with Event Name
Answer: A
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61. Jorge has exposed back-end data using an SQL DataSource, SQL Calls and a Service Definition with WSDL being
generated. Now for another model to use this data, which builder must be used to define the provider model?
A. SQL Consumer
B. Service Client
C. Service Consumer
D. Web Service Call
Answer: D

62. Sally has created a simple “Hello World” model and wishes to edit one of the builders. How does she begin editing?
A. Right-click the builder and choose “Edit”
B. Copy the builder and edit from the copy, then re-import the builder into the model
C. Double-click the builder or right-click and Open, then edit in the Builder Call Editor
D. Locate the builder call in the Navigator, then use “Open With…” to edit in a text editor
Answer: C

63. For faster iterative development and testing, Johan would like to test his models without continually republishing
them to a portal server, logging into the portal server and loading the correct page. Which of the following steps should
he take to accomplish this?
A. Create a configuration to run the model stand-alone
B. No actions are necessary as models run in the Eclipse or RAD IDE by default
C. Create a run configuration to run to run the models on an embedded test server
D. Open the model files in a browser after associating the extension .model with the browser
Answer: A

64. Which of the following builders should Gia use to rename a portlet for production?
A. Portlet Name builder
B. Portlet Adapter builder
C. Portlet Information builder
D. Portlet Configuration builder
Answer: B

65. Jeremy is about to implement configuration for his portlet, allowing the portal administrator to set parameters for the
portlet. In which builder call will he set the behavior for the profile set that contains the profile inputs for this purpose?
A. Portlet Adapter
B. Profile Adapter
C. Portal Configuration
D. Profiled Service Call
Answer: A